I fail to see how it is not obvious that the ability to control when/ if you have children. The rich have always been able to and have always been able to control when they have kids. Even if that means that the rich travel to another country that allows abortion.

We established cohabiting children are not being effected by social status?

The important factor in child health is the sense of stability and continuity i.e. that things tomorrow will be the same as they are today, I believe that the way cohabiting parents present the relationship has a great effect on the sense of durability.

So is it fair to assume that the Goode Hypothesis is based on the idea that First only the rich can divorce and do so at there own rate Then it becomes available to the lower classes and so they begin to do it gradually as it is not immediately socially accepted despite being available. Then as it becomes common place amoung the poor the rich begin to see it as "lowly" to divorce and avoid it due to social stigma. Is that the presumed chain or are there other motivations that I am missing?