Once we see intentions asdistinctive phenomena, how should we understand this relation
I wonder however if intentions are distinctive phenomenon, then, given a certain moral framework, how would they be evaluated within it? Do intentions have moral value, and should they? What about nefarious intentions, and what if they do not translate into action. Moreover, what if one's intentions are well-meaning, but their actions result in chaos. How would the moral value of such an action be evaluated if intentions are distinct phenomenon. Another question that can be posed here is, is it possible to locate where thought gets translated to intention--where that line lies, and if it is so that intention and thought are two distinct phenomenon, then do they lie within each other like sets or are they exclusive.