Yet it is acknowledged that this was not the first use of the term in Enlightenment philosophy. As the Merriam-Webster Dictionary writes on the term thing-in-itself: ‘First known use: 1739.’ Still, that is two years after Amo’s main work was turned in at Wittenberg, in 1737.
I wonder if this will ever be corrected in the dictionary? How many times has this happened and we just have not found as solid proof as in this scenario?