One study foundthat in 2007, perhaps 62 percent of all bankruptcies filed in the United Stateshad a medical cause; notably, three-quarters of those individuals actually hadhealth insurance at the time of the illness that caused their bankruptcy.
The author argues that underinsurance is a problem, but I wish he explained how "medica cause" was defined and who made that choice. If this was subjective, then 62% might be miscalculated. Relying on "perhaps" and "one study" seems week for an important point. Without reliable context, its hard to know if 62% is truly accurate.